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Hi everyone,
I have discovered a bigamist in the family tree and have some questions. Essentially the man married in Scotland, at some point left his wife and remarried another woman in England. He did divorce his first wife (or rather it seems she filed the divorce against him), but there was an overlap of about a year when he was 'married' to both. Legally where does the 2nd marriage stand? i.e. would the 2nd marriage actually be deemed legal after the divorce came through? We're talking more modern times, hence why I'm not putting in any specifics.
Many thanks!
Paula
I have discovered a bigamist in the family tree and have some questions. Essentially the man married in Scotland, at some point left his wife and remarried another woman in England. He did divorce his first wife (or rather it seems she filed the divorce against him), but there was an overlap of about a year when he was 'married' to both. Legally where does the 2nd marriage stand? i.e. would the 2nd marriage actually be deemed legal after the divorce came through? We're talking more modern times, hence why I'm not putting in any specifics.
Many thanks!
Paula